2 Comments

Well, these are basically PUNCTUATION marks. There is no reason for them to be the same even if the word they are punctuating is the same. The cantillation is secondary.

Expand full comment

Hello Professor, can we jump ahead to Parsha Shemot, why do the two uses of וַיַּ֖רְא have different accent or cantillation marks (whatever we call them) ("וַיַּ֖רְא" and "וַיַּרְא֙" even though they both appear to me to be qal imperfect of same verb, thanks, I have seen this a couple of time in Genesis thus far, and it confuses me, many thanks...

וַיְהִ֣י ׀ בַּיָּמִ֣ים הָהֵ֗ם וַיִּגְדַּ֤ל מֹשֶׁה֙ וַיֵּצֵ֣א אֶל־אֶחָ֔יו וַיַּ֖רְא בְּסִבְלֹתָ֑ם וַיַּרְא֙ אִ֣ישׁ מִצְרִ֔י מַכֶּ֥ה אִישׁ־עִבְרִ֖י מֵאֶחָֽיו׃

Expand full comment